2.2 Block Exam Set 09222

From FK Wiki
Jump to: navigation, search

Block C2 - Safe Motherhood & Neonates

View PDF (Indonesian)


Questions 1 to 10[edit]

1. What is the best method to predict whether a patient can deliver vaginally?

A. Determine type of pelvis
B. Vaginal ultrasound
C. Pelvimetry
D. Leopold III and IV
E. Cephalo-pelvic proportion

2. Leopold maneuver IV involves the doctor placing his hand on the divergent position. At least what station must a baby be at to allow vaginal examination of its head?

A. Station -1
B. Station 0
C. Station +1
D. Station +2
E. Station +3

3. The following is used for pain management during childbirth, except:

A. Water birth
B. Aromatherapy
C. Hypnobirthing
D. Analgetic drugs
E. Intralabor anesthesia

Use the following case to answer questions 4 and 5.

A 28-year-old woman, second gravid, pregnant at term with cephalic presentation and back facing left, is now in the delivery room complaining of feeling of defecation. Physical examination showed dilated anus. Bimanual examination showed that the head had descended to +2 station. Patient feels like pushing. Now, the head is crowning at the vaginal introitus.

4. The doctor performs bimanual examination. What is the primary reason for this investigation?

A. To determine the cephalo-pelvic proportion.
B. To determine the head station.
C. To determine the occiput position.
D. To determine cervical dilation.
E. To determine the engagement.

5. How long does it take to get through the second stage in normal parturition?

A. No more than 30 minutes.
B. No more than 60 minutes.
C. No more than 90 minutes.
D. No more than 120 minutes.
E. No more than 150 minutes.

Use the following case to answer questions 6 to 9.

A woman, aged 25 years G1P0A0 39 weeks pregnant, came to the delivery room because she feels like she is about to give birth for 12 hours now. Obstetric examination showed a single fetus in flexion, head presentation, back facing left, irregular HIS contractions 4 times within 10 minutes, and regular heart rate at 140 beats/min.

6. Bimanual examination is performed. What is the minimum opening of the cervix?

A. 4 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 7 cm
E. 8 cm

7. The fetal heart rate is checked using a monaural stethoscope. Where should the stethoscope be placed?

A. Upper left the navel
B. On the navel
C. Lower left of the navel
D. Upper right of the navel
E. Lower right of the navel

8. Two hours after the start of contractions, the amniotic membrane ruptures. When should the patient be asked to push?

A. During HIS
B. During the time when HIS is not occurring
C. Continuously until the baby's head is completely delivered
D. During as well as not during HIS
E. As soon as the head is visible

9. During delivery, doctors find parineal laceration involving the superficial perieal transversus muscle. What is the degree of perineal rupture?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Unclassified

10. A 25-year-old woman, G1P1A0, brought to the clinic due to signs of spontaneous birth. Fifteen hours later, the cervix is completely dilated, however after 1.5 hours in the second stage, the baby has still not been delivered. What is the treatment for cephalopelvic disproportion?

A. Induction of labor
B. Spontaneous birth
C. Vacuum extraction
D. Extraction by forceps
E. Caesarean section

Questions 11 to 20[edit]

11. What is a maternal risk factor for shoulder dystocia?

A. Obesity
B. Nulliparous
C. Prematurity
D. Older maternal age
E. Chronic hypertension

12. What is the etiology of face presentation?

A. Congenital goiter
B. Oxytocin induction
C. Preterm delivery
D. Tight abdominal musculature
E. Small for gestational age

13. What is the most appropriate examination for the diagnosis of cephalo-pelvic disproportion?

A. Positive Osborne test
B. Leopold IV divergent
C. Conjugata diagnosticum > 10.3
D. Prominent spina ischiadica
E. Narrow angle in Monroe-Kerr-Mueller test

14. An 18-year-old woman gave birth to a baby weighing 4000g vaginally. Her history shows prenatal anemia, a little weight gain, and maternal obesity. Childbirth has progressed to less than stage II after 3 hours. Delivery was by mid-forceps with sulcus laceration and third degree episiotomy. Three days postpartum, the patient experienced fever. What is the most likely etiology?

A. Mastitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Endometritis
D. Pyelonephritis
E. Septic thrombophlebitis

15. A 25-year-old woman, 42 weeks gestation, brought to the hospital by the midwife because there are no signs of childbirth. The doctor diagnosed it as postterm pregnancy and decided to perform induction. Which drug is the top choice to perform induction?

A. Oxytocin
B. Misoprostol
C. Dinoproston
D. Methylergonovine
E. Carboprost tromethamine

16. The following are included in the management of shoulder dystocia, except:

A. Fundal pressure
B. Mazzanti maneuver
C. McRobert's maneuver
D. Wood's screw maneuver
E. Delivery of posterior shoulder

17. Which factor influences the success of vaginal birth after cesarean section?

A. History of previous vaginal delivery
B. Fetal head station below -2
C. Interpregnancy interval < 1 year
D. History of cesarean surgery 2 times
E. Range of fetal weight > 3500g

18. The following are absolute contraindications for vacuum extraction, except:

A. Macrosomia
B. Fetal head has not engaged
C. Inexperienced operators
D. Suspected cephalopelvic disproportion
E. Inability to determine the fetal position

19. A woman has a pregnancy of 32 weeks gestation, blood pressure 150/90 mmHg, there was no previous history of hypertension, and proteinuria +1. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Superimposed preeclampsia
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Preeclampsia
E. Eclampsia

20. A 25-year-old woman, G1P0A0, can not remember the first day of her last menstrual period. Physical examination revealed blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, fundus height of 26 cm, and single fetus. What should be done next?

A. Proteinuria test
B. Routine blood test
C. Antihypertensive drug administration
D. Repeated blood pressure checks
E. Ultrasound to determine the gestational age

Questions 21 to 30[edit]

21. A patient with preeclampsia has a urine output of 300 ml in 6 hours. Based on this information, what is the correct management?

A. Give more fluids to increase urine output
B. Normal fluid administration if there is no edema
C. Restrict fluid to a maximum of 50 ml/hour
D. No recommendation for fluid volume management
E. Fluid administration of approximately 80 ml​​/hour

22. Is patofisiology underlying preeclampsia that can not be treated with anti-hypertensive drugs?

A. occult infection
B. vascular leakage
C. endothelial dysfunction
D. Blood viscosity problem
E. Saal hormonal exposure of pregnant

Use the following case to answer questions 23 and 24.

A 30-year-old woman, G3P2A0, with gestational age of 49 weeks came to the doctor with complaints that her fetus feels smaller than it should be.

23. What is a risk factor for small for gestational age (SGA) but not for IUGR?

A. Teratogens
B. Vascular disease
C. Social deprivation
D. Insufficient maternal nutrition
E. Constitutionally small mother

24. The doctor diagnosed her fetus with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). What is the risk of IUGR associated with chronic hypoxia?

A. Fetal infection
B. Congenital malformations
C. Insufficient maternal nutrition
D. Cyanotic heart disease
E. Constitutionally small mothers

25. The following can be used to identify fetal growth restriction (FGR), except:

A. Maternal weight gain
B. Gestation period
C. Previous history of IUGR
D. Fundal height measurement
E. X-ray

26. What affects neonatal mortality and morbidity the most?

A. Birth weight
B. APGAR score
C. Maternal medical condition
D. Gestational age
E. Level of neonatal nursery care

27. Which drug has the most beneficial influence on the perinatal outcomes for pregnancies with increased risk of preterm delivery?

A. Surfactant
B. Antimicrobial
C. GlucocorticoidPhenobarbitalrbital plus vitamin K
E. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

28. What is a common indication of premature birth?

A. Fetal distress
B. Placental abruption
C. Multifetal pregnancy
D. Total placenta previa
E. Fetal growth restriction

29. A 28-year-old woman, G2P1P0, gestation age 41 weeks, worried because she showed no signs of labor. In the case of postterm pregnancy, amniotic fluid is reduced. The following are functions of amniotic fluid, EXCEPT:

A. Lethal oxygenation
B. Maintain temperature
C. Prevent the fetus from trauma
D. Musculoskeletal development
E. Prevent compression of the umbilical cord during contractions

30. What layer is the thickest membrane that is composed of mesenchymal cells and macrophage cells in the extracellular matrix?

A. Compact layer
B. Fibroblast layer
C. Amniotic epithelial layer
D. Basement membrane
E. Intermediate layer

Questions 31 to 40[edit]

31. What is a supportive therapy for premature rupture of membranes at 24-34 weeks gestation?

A. Give daily antibiotics injections as prophylaxis for infection prevention
B. Ultrasound scan once a day to assess the volume of amniotic fluid
C. Tocolytic drug administration to increase steroids
D. Total bed rest until full-term pregnancy
E. Induction of labor with prostaglandin

32. What is the goal of antepartum fetal surveillance?

A. Routine inspection
B. Prevent fetal death
C. Prevent premature labor
D. Increase physician fees
E. Delaying childbirth until lung maturity is reached

33. What fetal activity is monitored during the contraction stress test?

A. Breathing
B. Eye movements
C. Heartbeat
D. Bodily movements
E. Extremity movements

34. What regulates fetal heart rate?

A. Hormonal factors
B. Aortic baroreceptor reflex
C. Carotid baroreceptor reflex
D. Autonomic function in the brain
E. Humoral factors such as atrial natriuretic peptide

35. Which problem is classically associated with abdominal pain and third trimester bleeding?

A. Vasa previa
B. Placenta previa
C. Placenta accreta
D. Placental abruption
E. Placental perforation

36. Reduction of which component of maternal hematologic serum is involved in coagulopathy in placental abruption?

A. Plasmin
B. D-dimer
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrinogen
E. Fibrinogen-fibrin degradation products

37. A patient with a gestational age of 30 weeks complained of vaginal bleeding. Examination revealed fetal heart rate of 130 beats/min without an increase or decrease. Ultrasonography showed that the placenta is located at the internal cervical os. The patient shows no sign of vaginal bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Caesarean section
B. Observation of pregnancy and childbirth
C. Vaginal delivery if there is no bleeding
D. Amniocentesis to assess fetal lung maturity
E. Examination to assess cervical dilation and fetal descent

38. A 30-year-old woman came to the emergency room with a referral from the midwife due to heavy vaginal bleeding. Doctors diagnosed it as postpartum hemorrhage. What is the minimum amount of blood loss?

A. At least 300 ml
B. At least 400 ml
C. At least 500 ml
D. At least 600 ml
E. At least 750 ml

39. What is the most frequent cause of early postpartum hemorrhage?

A. Atonic uterus
B. Vaginal laceration
C. Coagulation defect
D. Retained placenta
E. Retained placental fragment

40. A 33-year-old woman, P4A0, was brought to the emergency department by a midwife an hour after giving birth. Physical examination showed blood pressure 60/40 mmHg, pulse 120 beats/min, and bleeding. The placenta had normal attachment. There is a 2nd degree perineal laceration. What is the initial management for this patient?

A. Conduct 2nd degree laceration suturing
B. Examine uterus
C. Perform bimanual massage
D. Fluid resuscitation
E. Give uterotonics

Questions 41 to 50[edit]

41. Factor V Leiden gene increases the risk of miscarriage and deep vein thrombosis. What is the correct pathogenesis?

A. Factor V is resistant to cleavage by protein C activation.
B. Protein C activation is sensitive to factor V
C. Protein C activation is resistant to factor V
D. High levels of factor V in plasma
E. ??? factor V

42. The following are goals of fluid resuscitation, EXCEPT:

A. To achieve the physiological status of the body fluids
B. To achieve conditions of normovolumia
C. To achieve normal cardiac output
D. To achieve normal blood pressure
E. To achieve rehydration

43. The following are used in the monitoring of fluid resuscitation, EXCEPT:

A. Blood pH
B. Vital signs
C. Central venous pressure
D. Plasma Na+ concentration
E. Pleural effusion using chest x-ray

44. Which statement is correct for the condition after the administration of fluids in a state of equilibrium?

A. Half of the crystalloid fluid remains in the intracellular space
B. Half of crystalloid fluid remains in the interstitial space
C. Half of crystalloid fluid remains in the intravascular space
D. One third of crystalloid fluid remains in the intravascular space
E. One third of colloidal fluids remain in the intravascular space

45. A pregnant woman came to the emergency room with bleeding. The patient was diagnosed with sepsis. Laboratory findings revealed prolonged bleeding time, decreased platelet numbers, prolonged prothrombin time (PT), prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), and normal fibrinogen levels. What is the most likely complication?

A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B. Antiphospholipid syndrome
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Thrombophilia

46. The following procedures are necessary to prevent postpartum hemorrhage, EXCEPT:

A. Intramuscular injection of 10 IU oxytocin
B. Emptying of the bladder
C. Controlled cord traction
D. Bimanual massage
E. Uterus massage

47. A 28-year-old woman, P2A0, was referred by midwife to the emergency room. Physical examination showed blood pressure 90/70 mmHg and pulse 100 beats/min. The patient gave birth an hour ago. There is heavy vaginal bleeding and the placenta has not been delivered. What should be done next?

A. Fluid transfusion
B. Fluid resuscitation
C. Perform a manual placenta extraction
D. Inspect the uterus
E. Perform bimanual massage

48. The mechanism of hemostasis involves endothelial cells functioning as procoagulants and anticoagulants. Which protein secretion is associated with these types of anticoagulants?

A. Plasminogen activator type-1 (PAT1)
B. Von Willebrand factor
C. Prostacyclin
D. Tissue factor
E. Endothelin

49. Blood transfusions are given immediately in case of early postpartum hemorrhage if the amount of bleeding is:

A. 1000 mL
B. 1500 mL
C. 2000 mL
D. 2500 mL
E. 3000 mL

50. In a country with a total population of 600000 child-bearing-age women, there are 36000 live births and 200 maternal deaths in a year. What is the ratio of maternal deaths to maternal mortality for this country?

A. 555:33
B. 475:34
C. 455:23
D. 34:47
E. 33:55

Questions 51 to 60[edit]

51. What is the most common cause of maternal mortality?

A. Infection
B. Eclampsia
C. Malnutrition
D. Postpartum hemorrhage
E. Other systemic conditions

52. The following are indicators of fertility, EXCEPT:

A. Unmet need
B. Crude birth rate
C. Dependency ratio
D. Total fertility rate
E. Children ever born

Use the following case to answer question number 53-55.

The Chief Medical Officer of the District is conducting an audit of perinatal maternal mortality. The case involves a primigravida, 33 weeks pregnant with a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg and proteinuria ++, that gave birth with the help of a midwife. The midwife clinic, with makeshift facilities, does not regularly perform ANC. Delivery was rapid, and the patient died 2 hours later while experiencing a seizure.

53. The purpose of the meeting that follows a perinatal maternal mortality audit is as follows, EXCEPT:

A. Lowering maternal mortality and perinatal mortality
B. Improve the quality of maternal health workers
C. Fix a system that is not properly functioning
D. Determine the type of intervention
E. Awards

54. What is the most important outcome of a meeting of perinatal maternal mortality audit?

A. Knowing the sequence of events
B. Recommendations for improvements
C. Knowing the cause of death
D. Knowing where there was a delay
E. Knowing where there are deviations from protocol

55. In the above case, what is the leading cause of maternal death?

A. Eclampsia
B. Primigravida
C. Preterm birth
D. Performance by the midwives
E. Inadequate maternal care facilities

56. Maternal mortality in Indonesia is the highest in all of the ASEAN countries. The following are modifiable factors that affect maternal mortality, EXCEPT:

A. Geographical location
B. Health status
C. Income
D. Education
E. Habit

57. Maternal mortality rate in Indonesia in 2007 was 228. What is the denominator?

A. 100 live births
B. 1,000 live births
C. 10,000 live births
D. 100,000 live births
E. 1,000,000 live births

Use the following case to answer questions 58-60.

Mrs Helena lives in Niki-Niki, in the eastern part of East Nusa Tenggara province. The mother had given birth to her baby an hour ago in her home assisted by traditional birth attendants, during which she started having postpartum bleeding. Her husband was worried about the safety of his wife but could not take her to the nearest health center because he has to consult with his extended family first.

58. If the patient does not get immediate help, when will the patient die?

A. Within 1 hour
B. Within 2 hours
C. Within 3 hours
D. Within 4 hours
E. Within 5 hours

59. What type of delay is experienced by the patient?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5

60. The patient arrived at the health center but nobody was there. The midwife on duty was helping another patient deliver in another village. What type of delay does the patient experience?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5

Questions 61 to 70[edit]

61. The following statements related to maternal health are true, EXCEPT:

A. 90% of maternal deaths worldwide are in developing countries
B. Maternal mortality around the world has been reduced by one-third
C. Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia accounted for 80% of total maternal deaths
D. Global maternal mortality reduction between the years 1990-2005 is less than 1%
E. Less than 50% of women in developing countries deliver using trained health personnel

62. The following are the four pillars of the Safe Motherhood Initiative, EXCEPT:

A. Antenatal care
B. Family planning
C. Clean and safe delivery
D. Basic essential neonatal obstetric care
E. Comprehensive essential neonatal obstetric care

63. The following are indicators of maternal health:

i. Maternal mortality ratio
ii. Antenatal care (at least four visits)
iii. Proportion of births attended by skilled health personnel
iv. The prevalence of anemia in pregnant women

Which of the above are MDG indicators for maternal health?

A. i, ii, and iii
B. i and iii
C. ii and iv
D. iv
E. i, ii, iii, and iv

64. The following are indicators of four MDGs, EXCEPT:

A. Infant mortality rate
B. Child mortality
C. Neonatal mortality
D. Full immunization coverage
E. Measles immunization coverage

65. The following are indirect causes of high maternal mortality rate, EXCEPT:

A. Infection
B. Anemia
C. Hypertension
D. Eclampsia
E. Bleeding

66. Which respiratory condition sequence is a response to hypoxia?

A. Irregular breathing - primary apnea - fast breathing - secondary apnea
B. Primary apnea - fast breathing - secondary apnea - irregular breathing
C. Fast breathing - primary apnea - secondary apnea - irregular breathing
D. Fast breathing - irregular breathing - primary apnea - secondary apnea
E. Fast breathing - primary apnea - irregular breathing - secondary apnea

67. What is characteristic of fetal blood circulation?

A. Parallel circulation
B. Foramen ovale is closed
C. Pulmonary vasodilatation
D. Right atrial pressure is low
E. Right ventricular pressure low

68. Which of the following statements about adaptation from fetal to adult circulation is correct?

A. Stopping of pulmonary artery blood flow into the aorta
B. Lowering blood flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle
C. Improve blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium
D. Lowering blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle
E. Lowering blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery

69. The following are questions that can be used to observe the newborn baby, EXCEPT:

A. How many months of gestation period?
B. Is the muscle tone good?
C. Is it breathing or crying?
D. Is there amniotic meconium?
E. Is the heart-rate over 100 beats/minute?

70. Which statement is in accordance with the initial steps for neonatal resuscitation?

A. Suction to the posterior pharynx
B. Suction the nose and then the mouth
C. Extend the head
D. Suction of 120 mmHg with a vacuum machine
E. Tactile stimuli with patting 2x on the calf

Questions 71 to 80[edit]

71. Which statement is true about free flow oxygen?

A. Oxygen tube is placed between the nose and mouth with a finger to keep it open
B. Can not be given by a balloon that can inflate itself
C. Given if bluish toes and hands
D. Given if the baby is straining to breathe
E. Oxygen flow of 3 liters/min

72. Which of the following is the most important during the treatment of the umbilical cord?

A. Keep it clean, dry, and do not give anything for the cord
B. Close the umbilical cord with sterile gauze to prevent infection
C. Give povidone iodine daily to prevent infection
D. Give alcohol daily to prevent infection
E. Give warm compresses 2 times a day

73. What is the most easy and effective way to prevent infections in neonates?

A. Washing hands
B. Decontamination
C. Using masks
D. Using gloves
E. Sterilization and high-level disinfection

74. Which statement is true about premature babies?

A. Give a polio vaccination when suction reflex is good
B. Do not give vitamin because the skin is very thin
C. Hepatitis B vaccine is contraindicated for infants
D. Bathe baby every 6 hours after birth even though the body temperature < 36°C
E. Bathe baby after thermoregulation is stable or axillary temperature not < 36°C

75. If a newborn is placed on the mother's abdomen for early initiation of breastfeeding, what happens in the first 30 minutes?

A. Babies are in a state of calm or rest stage
B. Babies find the mother's nipples with their hands
C. Babies begin to suck the breast
D. Babies insert their hand in their mouth
E. Babies slap the skin of the mother

76. When is vitamin K given?

A. After hepatitis B vaccination
B. Along with the hepatitis B vaccination
C. As soon as possible after the baby is born
D. Before feeding for the first time
E. After nursing for the first time

77. The following statement is true regarding breastfeeding, EXCEPT:

A. 22% of neonatal deaths could be prevented if breastfeeding is started within 1 hour after birth
B. 16% of neonatal deaths could be prevented if all babies are breastfed from day one
C. Delay of initiation of breastfeeding increases the risk of neonatal mortality
D. Exclusive breastfeeding should be given for 4 months
E. Initiating breastfeeding consists of 5 steps

78. What is the most appropriate way to store milk?

A. In a cooler flask that contains a block of ice for 24 hours
B. At room temperature of 38°C, it can last for 2 hours
C. At 4°C temperature in the fridge, it can last up to 7 days
D. At room temperature of 25°C, it can last for 6 hours
E. Buffer in the freezer for 6 months

79. What nipple lubricant do mothers need to use before breastfeeding?

A. Body cream
B. Warm water
C. Cold water
D. Soap

80. How does jaundice spread over the skin in neonates?

A. Right to left
B. Left to right
C. Cranio-caudal
D. Caudo-cranial
E. There is no pattern

Questions 81 to 90[edit]

81. What are the complications of indirect hyperbilirubinemia?

A. Growth and development issues
B. Respiratory distress
C. Kernicterus
D. Premature
E. Sepsis

82. What conditions cause hyperbilirubinemia due to excessive production (hemolysis)?

A. Umbilical cord bleeding
B. Low albumin levels
C. Degradation of premature erythrocytes
D. Feto-maternal blood incompatibility
E. Low uptake of bilirubin in the liver

83. Compared to adult skin, what are the characteristics of a newborn's skin?

A. Epidermal barrier function is perfect
B. Relative body mass is greater than the surface area of ​​the skin
C. Skin surface area is relatively larger than body mass
D. Already, there are natural moisturizing factors capable of binding liquid
E. There are large sebaceous glands with cells around the pilosebaceous follicle

84. Which statement is true about the causes of sebaceous hyperplasia?

A. Excessive growth of sebaceous glands due to maternal androgen stimulation
B. Cystic keratin retention in the superficial dermis
C. Cystic keratin retention in the deep dermis
D. Closing of pores and sweat retention
E. Immaturity of the eccrine glands

85. A 5-day-old neonate suffered a seizure. Upon examination, the blood glucose level is 30 mg/dL. What should be done next?

A. Give as much as 40% glucose bolus of 2 ml/kg without glucose infusion
B. Give as much as 10% glucose bolus 2 ml/kg followed by an infusion of electrolytes
C. Give as much as 10% glucose bolus of 2 ml/kg without glucose infusion, however increase drinking by mouth
D. Give as much as 10% glucose bolus of 2 ml/kg followed by an infusion of glucose at a rate of 6-8 mg/kg/min
E. Give 40% glucose bolus of 2 ml/kg followed by an infusion of glucose at a rate of 6-8 mg/kg/min

86. Which is the drug of choice to stop seizures in neonates?

A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Locazepam
D. Chlorpromazin
E. Phenobarbital

87. For the management of neonates with hypothermia, what is the target increase in temperature?

A. 0.5°C/minute
B. 0.5°C/hour
C. 0.5°C/2 hours
D. 0.5°C/3 hours
E. 0.5°C/day

88. How is feeding facilitated for low birth weight (LBW) babies?

A. Sucking reflex can be trained with a bottle
B. Born after over 33 weeks gestation, no sucking reflex. (??? bad translation or bad source ???)
C. It is not recommended to feed directly babies with LBW and born beyond 37 weeks gestation.
D. If the sucking or swallowing reflex is not developed, the baby can be fed through a feeding tube
E. Although there is a developed sucking and swallowing reflex, the LBW baby should not be fed by a glass so as not to choke

89. Which statement is in accordance with the Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)/clingy baby care?

A. In KMC/clingy baby care, LBW babies should be attached only to their mothers
B. KMC should be done in a hospital that has a 24-hour physician
C. KMC requires a special room
D. Motivation and promotion of breastfeeding
E. Prevents hyperthermia

90. Which statement is in true about prophylactic antibiotics?

A. Given to neonates with PROM> 24 hours
B. Given to high-risk infants
C. Given to premature babies
D. Given to infants postterm
E. Given in antenatal care

Questions 91 to 100[edit]

91. What laboratory tests should be performed to determine the cause of sepsis?

A. Procalcitonin
B. Blood culture
C. Leukocyte count
D. C-reactive protein
E. Differential leukocyte count

92. Which is the pathogenesis of late-onset sepsis?

A. Nosomomial infection
B. Amniotic fluid infection
C. Bacterial colonization in the cervix
D. Inoculum aspiration of the vagina
E. Hematogenous spread from mother

93. What is the consequence of gastrointestinal neonatal asphyxia?

A. Increased gastrointestinal infections
B. Neonatal enterocolitis (NEC)
C. Narrowing of the lumen
D. Vomit
E. Diarrhea

94. What are the complications of asphyxia on the cardiovascular system?

A. Persistent fetal circulation
B. Increased tissue perfusion
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Ventricular septal defect
E. Increased contractions

95. The following include birth trauma to the head, EXCEPT:

A. Subgaleal hemorrhage at birth affecting large babies
B. Head fracture in the case of pelvic disproportion
C. Intracranial hemorrhage due to head massage
D. Caput succedaneum due to birth with vacuum
E. Cephalhematoma due to a difficult birth

96. According to the integrated management algorithm, a baby would be classified as having severe jaundice if the following signs are visible, EXCEPT:

A. Jaundice in the first 24 hours
B. Jaundice was found at the age of 14 days or more
C. Jaundice was first seen at the age of 3 days
D. Jaundice until the soles of the feet or hands
E. Putty-colored stools

97. What is the first dose of antibiotics given to neonates suspected of having sepsis?

A. Penicillin only
B. Gentamicin only
C. Ampicillin and gentamicin
D. Chloramphenicol and ampicillin
E. Chloramphenicol and gentamicin

98. A premature baby with breathing difficulty has been referred. The baby's breathing rate is 18 times/min. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Ask the ambulance driver to drive as fast as possible to get to the medical center
B. Perform positive pressure ventilation with balloons and lid
C. Provide oxygen at a rate of 5 liters/min
D. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters/min
E. Provide oxygen via head box at 10 liters/min

99. What is the appropriate management of newborns with mothers with hepatitis B?

A. Avoid breastfeeding
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Provision of hepatitis B immunoglobulin
D. Antibiotics and hepatitis B vaccine
E. Vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin

100. How is tuberculosis transmitted from mother to baby most often?

A. Airborne
B. Fecal-oral
C. Parenteral
D. Transplacental
E. During labor